Continuing Medical Education: CME Multiple Choice Questions
Continuing Medical Education CME Multiple Choice Questions 1. Why is surgical menopause not a good model of the effects of estradiol deprivation on th...
Continuing Medical Education CME Multiple Choice Questions 1. Why is surgical menopause not a good model of the effects of estradiol deprivation on the occurrence of FSD? a. Because surgical menopause occurs prematurely in the reproductive life span b. Because surgical menopause is the consequence of reproductive abnormalities c. Because the removal of the ovaries also brings about acute androgen deprivation d. Because more estrone is produced as the result of acute estradiol deprivation e. Because surgically menopausal women have a higher body mass index 2. What are the symptoms most commonly associated with urogenital aging? a. Dryness b. Irritation c. Dysuria d. Recurrent urinary infections e. All of the above 3. Which is the most common “leader” sexual symptom related to hypoestrogenism and urogenital atrophy? a. Sexual pain b. Impaired orgasm c. Hypoactive sexual desire disorder d. Poor satisfaction e. None of the above 4. Apart from relationship factors, what is another very important predictor of sexual function during the natural menopausal transition? a. Mood swings b. Circulating estradiol levels c. Body image d. Stressors e. Hot flushes 5. Why are HTs that are used in menopausal practice not supported by adequate evidence to be effective in the treatment of FSD? a. Because of the low dose of exogenous hormones b. Because the effects of HTs on sexual function are very slow c. Because HTs have many side effects d. Because HTs do not generally increase sexual desire e. Because women are too old 6. Why is SHBG production and activity so important for women’s sexual functioning? J Sex Med 2009;6:617–618
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a. Because SHBG is not modified by drugs b. Because SHBG is regulated by physical exercise c. Because SHBG levels are critical to formulate FSD diagnosis d. Because HTs do not affect SHBG levels e. Because SHBG regulates the availability of androgens in target tissues What is the estrogen treatment that most significantly increases SHBG at menopause? a. Conjugated equine estrogens b. Transdermal estradiol c. Micronized estradiol d. Tibolone e. Raloxifene What is the main advantage of topical estrogens for the relief of menopausal-derived atrophic vaginitis? a. High degree of systemic absorption b. Effectiveness in postmenopausal women of any age c. Availability of different formulations d. Possibility to be used in combination with other HTs e. Higher patient acceptance in comparison with HTs Why can’t raloxifene be proposed as a first-line treatment in early postmenopausal women? a. Because raloxifene is highly effective on the bone b. Because raloxifene induces uterine bleeding c. Because raloxifene has a detrimental effect on the cardiovascular risk d. Because raloxifene does not relieve menopausal symptoms e. Because raloxifene cannot be used in association with topical estrogens Why is tibolone considered a good therapeutic option to relieve FSD in naturally postmenopausal women? a. Because tibolone increases bioavailable testosterone b. Because tibolone restores opioidergic tone c. Because tibolone increases the vaginal maturation index d. Because tibolone influences vaginal pulse amplitude at baseline and following erotic stimulation e. All of the above 617
Continuing Medical Education
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